Monday, December 04, 2023 3:04:07 PM
To improve liquidity: Market makers want to appear to have a large inventory of shares so that they can attract traders to their market. By internalizing short sales, they can create the illusion that they have more shares available to sell than they actually do.
How exactly does that work. We have no idea how many shares they hold of a certain Co, Nor do we have any visibility to the internalized short, so how does this "create the illusion that they have more shares available to sell than they actually do"?
To hide their short positions from other market participants: Market makers often have large short positions in individual stocks. If these positions were publicly disclosed, it could make other market participants reluctant to trade with them. By internalizing their short sales, they can keep their positions hidden
"By internalizing their short sales, they can keep their positions hidden." Maybe, but they have also carried the cover for the short as it was internalized, so the two are effectively neutralized and have no real effect on the market,
For example, market makers could use internalization to manipulate the price of a stock or to front-run their own orders.
BARD does not explain just how this price manipulation is accomplished.
A market maker could internalize a short sale by using a block trade. Block trades are large trades that are executed outside of the open market. Block trades are not disclosed to the public, so they would not be visible to regular retailers.
The fact that a trade is also part of a block trade doesn't really make a difference to the visibility, as it is already not visible as a part of an internalized trad.
BARD uses a lot of words but doesn't really explain the nitty gritty of how internalization achieves its effect he asserts that it has.
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