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Re: skitahoe post# 634369

Sunday, 09/24/2023 4:06:36 AM

Sunday, September 24, 2023 4:06:36 AM

Post# of 700010
Good question. I would have thought not because simply exercise for cash without selling the acquired underlying, means there would not be any net disposition. But on searching briefly I noticed a link to a primer regarding insider filing which indicates that the insider should report the exercise both as a decrease in the number of warrants held and increase in # of shares held. If that is true then if she obeyed the regulations LP has not exercised any warrants.

Below is a quote about it and the link it came from. The link is in a chapter on trading plans but I assume the underlying reporting would be the same if warrants are exercised by an insider outside of any trading plan:

insert-text-here

Note: An exercise of warrants requires two transactions, both using code 54, to record the disposition of the warrants and the acquisition of the underlying security itself (i.e. common shares, trust units, etc.). If the underlying security was subsequently sold, then a third transaction would be required (code 10 if in the market or code 11 if carried out privately)

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