I'd like to hear your take on this.. Yes, we are common shareholders, but did he not try to issue himself preferred shares?
If we are all shareholders, why did the inventors get funds where not only did shareholders not get any, but there wasn't even an attempt yet to even collect our information from the CO. in Utah.
Not trying to be argumentative, just asking a real question... I don't those facts can be ignored, so I'm curious what your take is in light of those facts. I don't know how one can think all are equal when some have been paid and others not, but I'd love to be convinced otherwise!
Merry Christmas!
