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Friday, August 27, 2021 8:50:32 PM
In other words, let’s say an investor owns equal shares of bioforce and ELGL (the case for me) purchased at comparable prices (not the case for me actually). Which lot of shares would he do better with after the merger? Or is the answer he would do equally well with each lot of shares?
I just don’t understand if the significantly different individuals floats of ELGL and bioforce is a variable or not if the two companies merge at 1:1.
Thanks in advance.
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