Wednesday, June 30, 2021 11:58:42 AM
If in fact interest is "owed" for 48 quarters (or whatever), but I actually wasn't the rightful owner of the share during that entire period, would I get the full interest owed, or only for the period when I owned it?
It would make sense that the interest for each period should go to the owner during that period. Not sure how possible it would be to do that.
It would make no sense to do it any other way. But very little makes sense, so cant rule it out
just wondering...
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