ViaDerma Inc (VDRM)

[BesaoT35]

If VDRM were to reverse split to a stock price of $1 it would be roughly a 1000 to 1 reverse split. What does it mean that the 30 million preferred shares do not consolidate? After the reverse split the outstanding shares would be roughly 1 million outstanding.

The 30 million preferred shares were worth 300 million common shares. What is the situation after a 1000 to 1 reverse split for these 30 million preferred shares?

Thanks.