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Re: Pharmacydude post# 264989

Saturday, 04/11/2020 5:23:46 PM

Saturday, April 11, 2020 5:23:46 PM

Post# of 425933
Question for you Pharmacydude,

let's say the insurance company pays $150 for V and $25 for generic V

after coupon and after insurance coverage the patient pays $10/month for V and $5 for generic V.

The doc writes a prescription for V 2 gm twice daily for CVD

The insurance company would prefer to switch the scrip to GV but the patient would gladly pay an extra $5 for the real thing. In this case the winner is the generic and the insurance company while the loser is Amarin and the patient. Is this how it works? ie. the substitution is based on the cost to the insurer not to the patient?

presumably Amrn could raise the coupon and the patient might pay nothing but the insurer would still switch to GV in order to increase their profits?
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