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Sunday, 04/05/2020 10:53:37 AM

Sunday, April 05, 2020 10:53:37 AM

Post# of 425795
One part that I find incredible is that despite Amarin now having a new label (that includes CVD and that have additional layers of patents protecting it), legally, generics could still be allowed to sell the same molecule based on an initial and smaller indication.

Wouldn't the FDA then want to have the label for the generic-EPA equal to Vascepa? and if so, they would be listing the CVD benefit that would be infringing. I Know that obviously this is not case (otherwise we would not be where we are today) but can someone explain me why?
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