Saturday, December 07, 2019 11:19:18 PM
If congress did not (directly or indirectly) authorize "taking" then how can Courts award damages for unlawful "taking"?
If the courts award damages in such cases, then is it not a appropriation of taxpayers's money without congressional authorization?
May be for this reason CFC might have denied plaintiff's direct claims. May be in derivative claims, CFC will reverse the unauthorized takings without any damages.
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