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Friday, December 01, 2006 4:28:13 PM
I don't know if anyone's said anything about this, but I assume today's not the pay-day for the dividend. If this is the case, does that mean that everyone who was on record as a shareholder of today (meaning having had at least one share on the 28th) is elgible for the dividend in the future? ie. your position in the future date then is one-for-one, not your position now?
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