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Re: osoaz post# 12346

Wednesday, 11/29/2006 3:33:58 PM

Wednesday, November 29, 2006 3:33:58 PM

Post# of 63795
Qualifying dividend theory

well say you have 3 shares on nov 28, you sell 2 on nov 29, wouldn't you still be a shareholder of record as of dec 1 for that one share?

If you're implying that on Dec 1, only the 1 share is credited w/ a dividend (because the shareholder technically doesn't have 3 shares anymore), then what happens to the 2 other shares in transition? Does the person who bought them get the dividend? Well he can't if he didn't buy on the 28th & wasn't a shareholder. Likewise, if that is true, its unlikely that the person who still is a shareholder & bought some more isn't going to get credited w/ the shares he bought after the 28th, if the previous truth doesn't apply, does it?

What list can they be comparing?


It has to be the list compiled after the settlement date. Everyone who bought on the 28th should have a dividend for the share they had then... what you do after is up to you. Please correct me if i'm wrong.