Question for the couple posters here who seem to be fluent with 'filing-speak'.
1) Does this deal with Barrons seem to be toxic at any price limit? ie - is there an advantage to Barrons to have the price low? Do they get more shares?
2) Is it possible that the buyer of the past couple months has actually been the company, busy satisfying the buy-back terms of the merger agreement? - could explain the lack of communication - can't be talking to investors while acting in the market. Or are these transactions not taking place in the open market?
3) Why wasn't the amended option effective on Sept 30th? Wasn't the amendment agreed upon prior to that?
4) If it had been effective before the end of the quarter, would that have eliminated the non-cash derivative loss? If so why?
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