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Re: None

Tuesday, 01/15/2019 6:05:11 PM

Tuesday, January 15, 2019 6:05:11 PM

Post# of 346756
Can someone explain something to me? Apparently the theory is that one seller with 1.3 million shares basically walked the price down.

What would he gain from doing that? Are we under the presumption that he did it to buy more shares even cheaper? Was it done from spite? Why would a current investor damage his own investment?