First of all, thanks for taking your time to respond.
When you said "If they are distributing $1 of value then the market makers will beat it down by $1 on the ex-date." Shouldn't it be the other way around?
If they are distributing let's say $2, shouldn't that be the benchmark on the price, therefore a $2 or higher valuation for SIAF is an appropriate number at that point?
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