Saturday, August 04, 2018 3:24:32 PM
So wouldn’t GERS selling the patent to a different party require GERS to file such info to the court? And doesn’t the lack of such filing show there probably hasn’t been a change of ownership of the patents?
Why expect differently, if there isn’t any reason to think so?
It’s like saying “could Apple have sold their patents to samsung, because they didn’t file it?”
It seems like nitpicking in reverse to me.
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