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Re: Amatuer17 post# 132068

Tuesday, 11/28/2017 7:53:47 AM

Tuesday, November 28, 2017 7:53:47 AM

Post# of 460330
Now, on the other hand, if they are including the first 5 week data, that could make things a bit different because they were using IV and Pills and at higher doses during that period.

It’s certainly a question that begs for an answer though imho.

Everyone is assuming that because they used “concentration” instead of “dose” , that means the two are not directly correlated.

I believe based on graphs presented by Anavex that they are actually correlated fairly well.

If someone wants to get an “A” in math they need to score near 90% on “most” of the tests and in if someone is to “fail” math class then they need to score below 60% for “most” of the tests.

It seems reasonable to me to assume that, since the dots on the graphs basically represent an “average” concentration for the trial period for each patient, the patients on the right side of the graph were the only ones able to tolerate the higher doses for “most” of the trial.

If Anavex believes only higher doses are effective, I believe that would mean they need to figure out some things.

Seem logical?


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