Monday, January 16, 2017 7:09:57 PM
Given a very good RRR, say along the order of 25% plus, certain things fall into place. The overall RRR is made up of subgroups and in the absence of any particular efficacy shown in a particular group, you would expect a random distribution about the mean. So the results would appear as a not particularly marked difference among the subgroups, all contributing to the 25%. I almost wrote "significant" but that's a stat term here, not an English term. So OK, we could prolly live with that. And that is a handsome RRR, practically speaking, if not the desired 50%. Still, the indicated population would be broad.
But it seems unlikely. More likely is that even given an identical disease process, some individuals would be more susceptable to the process and more responsive to the treatment, broadly speaking, based on genetics, single vs multiple health issues, diet, etc. Given that, might you not get a 25% RRR made up of an 8% RRR among the healthiest cohort and a 45% RRR among the most susceptable/responsive cohort? Say active non diabetic vs immobile diabetic. Again, the population for Reduce It is as noted "old and sick" and an 8% RRR among is not what we'd like to see or likely to see. But as the subgroups could make marketing targeted and an easy stroke, so could they make it problematic.
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