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Tuesday, November 22, 2016 9:56:24 AM
Wondering what you think Ackman is thinking positioning himself in the commons over the preferreds (as I know you are more bullish on the pref than the common)?
I guess he's expecting to settle at some $ value that is a greater change from the ceiling of Par ~$25/pref (+damages) from the levels back when her purchased his common for pennies, which would still equate to a $ price somewhere in the $20s perhaps?
Are you thinking he sues when the gov't attempts to exercise their warrants?
Just curious as to what you think he's thinking going common over pref.
thanks
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