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Thursday, 10/13/2016 11:38:24 AM

Thursday, October 13, 2016 11:38:24 AM

Post# of 695398
I have a question for RK or anyone else who wants to run with it. I fail to understand the point Dr Bosch was making when comparing the TOP 30% of patients in the PI D trial in their individual results vs thier expected individual Wheler result which of course looks good. But why ignore the countervailing result of the 30% poorest patients in the same sort of comparison which would obviously look bad. If you want a complete picture you can not only look at the 30% "good" outliers and ignore the "bad" outliers. what is the logic to this look at the balance with your finger firmly on the scale? I do not get it - please explain??? this is probably what AF was arguing - does he not have a point - whether it is an individual comparison for each patient or against the overall statistic?

BTW, I am a long and would love to get past this point with a rational argument.
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