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Friday, August 05, 2016 2:27:46 PM
Isn't it customary to issue shares for bills on Friday ? Aren't they issued as a discount based on the lowest bid within the last 3 trading days ? Doesn't that also answer the age old question "Why would an insider intentionally dive the stock" ?
If 30k$ in bills are to be paid @ a low bid of .0002; How many shares are to be issued ?
Isn't the TA gagged ?
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