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Re: mr_sano post# 28619

Sunday, 06/05/2016 1:19:01 AM

Sunday, June 05, 2016 1:19:01 AM

Post# of 57057

But dilution has to do with ownership. I don't get why you are using a price per share in your calculation.
In 2001 they had 15M issued and in 2016 they have 185M.
A simple average suggest a 12 fold increase over this period. If you owned 10% in 2001 you now own something like .82%. Whichever way one slices it, this is not an insignificant percentage by any stretch.



1- How many people on this board owned shares in 2001 ? Not me.. Yeah you're right, any company would have a huge dilution compared to their beginnings with just a fews owners....

2- the topic was last fundraising in case you missed the conversation, where one mathematically challenged poster did not believe the "minimally dilutive" words used by Bigger. So taking the pps into account, dilution for this fundraising was 2%, and taking just the number of shares, dilution was 10 million/(180 million+10 million) = 5%