Is this how it would work?
Someone hands over their shares to a broker, and has him short PAIV in the same # of shares that they owned in restricted shares.
He pays them the current pps value and expects the pps to drop in 1-2 years, when he could then use the restricted shares to cover his short position at a very low price.
Is that correct?
I guess the problem is finding someone with a lot of money who would take restricted shares with no real guarantee that PAIV will drop in pps in 1-2 years.
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