"For their good fortune"???
Where is that in your "equal before the law" argument?
Do we now suspend equality before the law and measure "good fortune"?
LOL! How utterly insane (on many grounds).
First, you blithely attribute the $400 million to 'good fortune'. I'm sure that person just had the money drop into their lap - and if they did, SO WHAT. It does nott mean they are to be subjected to unequal treatment before the law. You seem to make a strange assumption about how people create value and wealth - as though it's a huge roulette wheel and they just toss chips onto a number and win. Butt the effort needed to obtain the $400 million is nott relevant at all. Even if they won it in a lottery, they should be treated EQUALLY before the law.
Second, if you are now in favor of unequal treatment based on "good fortune", then the same principle applies to all governmental actions - the court can say "yeah, you murdered 10 people, butt since you grew up poor, you can go free under the law, on the other hand, this fellow who had the 'good fortune' to go to Harvard butt committed the same crime will gett the death penalty.
Third, the government is wholly incompetent to measure "good fortune" or "opportunity". It is nothing but political handwaving to claim that as a basis for unequal treatment (like differential taxation or affirmative action).
Finally, the government is nott authorized to make such determinations nor to impose unequal treatment to 'remedy' any such 'opportunity' disparities (however measured and however determined).
So you really do NOTT support equal treatment by the law, you prefer politically-negotiated unequal treatment.
Just admit it. That is indeed your position.
