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Re: janice shell post# 34733

Saturday, 09/12/2015 7:20:07 PM

Saturday, September 12, 2015 7:20:07 PM

Post# of 54900

It would seem that under your definitions that I would have received 0.044 per share for the year which would have been way more than the company produced.

How do you arrive at that calculation?



4 x 0.011 would have been 0.044 which was what I would have received if they would have been able to give their 4 quarterly dividends at that same rate.

And therefore the smaller 3% one would have been better for a regular divivend.

Smaller than what? There was no comparison. That was a STOCK dividend, not cash. It supposedly represented 3% of the shares outstanding, or something. I've never seen a stock dividend described that way before. Usually they say shareholders will receive one restricted share for every 100 shares they own, or something similar.



The 3% is the number they gave for their special one time dividend. As I stated it is open to interpatation. I read it as 3% the value of the stock at the time of record. You seem to assume other and on a "usually" standard. I always see dividends in plain dollars and cents thru my trading platform at least.

Again it was what it was said to be by the company in their release until proven otherwise by whomever overseas those things. It makes no matter which would have best fit the legal definition of either type of dividend up until that point . I agree that according to your definition that the company made a writing error at least. And my explanation of why along with the math backs that up. Yes according to your definitions, they made a mistake. especially the "windfall" part.