The Golden Lounge

[stock_rancher]

Question for anyone? When a company is cellar boxed .0001 x .0002 and there is a ton of shares shorted at .0002 with hopes of a R/S, what happens if a company pulls a quick one and gives let's say a 1 for 100 forward split? Does that method force covering? Did PAIM do that method? I believe they did a 1 for 1,000 forward split followed by another forward split.......... at that point who cares if it is locked at .0001 when your original 1,000,000 (x .0002 = $200) shares become 1,000,000,000 (x .0001 = $100,000). If anyone has any input on how this works I would greatly appreciate the information. See you all later, I have some business to take care of today.



Thanks!