If they sold all the authorised shares at current prices -- and someone said there are 10 billion authorised -- before your alleged reverse split -- then there would be reason to believe the dilution was ended. At least in the near future.
Do you have proof of a reverse split -- as opposed to a suspicion based on your observations of PAST behaviour? It may be prudent to assume past behaviour predicts future behaviour, but it is not any kind of proof.
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