Thursday, October 09, 2014 9:32:42 PM
... however, after 586 words that included 3,492 characters it is inaccurate as it relates to my exact request of supplying the math (which could have been done). And of course, this was a follow-on request to a previous request to answer the question: what is "significant availability?"
Overall, this was within the context of your asserted statement: "... The company itself does not have significant availability to sell shares. ...", which I am claiming is false and had provided the math to back up that claim.
It appears your assertion now is that the math cannot be done because the conversion price is somehow adjustable. However, the conversion price is fixed-- both for the Preferred Share conversion and the Warrants. So please provide the exact wording you are using/interpreting to come up with the notion that the conversions are not at a fixed price-- thank you
The rest of your quite lengthy post is a straw man IMHO. It doesn't apply to the issue at hand.
I re-assert that the company has the ability to tap into approximately 45 million common shares. I further assert that is significant.
(FTR, your opening statement is incomplete as the underlying common shares must be registered as well. Such action may take longer than 60 days.)
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