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Saturday, 07/12/2014 3:21:08 PM

Saturday, July 12, 2014 3:21:08 PM

Post# of 78243
Where do you think we would be at PPS wise w/o the dilution of the notes? Understand, I am not saying that some were not needed because after looking at some of the explanations as to why they were used...I get it.
Much has been made of insiders not selling their shares-very commendable and a good sign. But I have to ask would financial needs of REDG not have been met if Mr Powell had cashed in some of his own shares for operational purposes if the PPS were say, between, .01-.05 or higher?
When looking at the amounts gained and the terms of repayment, would there not have been a greater gain for current and past operations if the PPS had been allowed to rise of its own volition and then the company had used its shares to fund operations. Is this allowed? A combination of some sort?

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