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buenokite

03/09/14 11:12 AM

#261407 RE: flptrnkng #261405

flp, you could be right but my experience with cashless warrants is you can exercise them with no upfront "cash" and you pay the warrant price (in this case a dime) out of the proceeds of the transaction from selling the stock converted from the warrant all in one swoop.

So if you could get .15 for the stock you do the cashless exercise and sell. You put up no money but a dime goes to the company and a nickel to you minus fees etc obviously.

loanranger

03/09/14 11:19 AM

#261408 RE: flptrnkng #261405

True! Typically that would require the market price at the time to be in excess of the exercise price, right?

Please look at the following, which is from the warrant agreement, and tell me if it makes sense to you:

X = Y [A-B/A].

X = the number of shares of Common Stock.

Y = the number of Warrants being exercised (prior to the Cashless Exercise).

A = the average of the closing bid and asked prices on the primary trading market on which the Company's Common Stock is then listed or quoted for the five (5) trading days immediately prior to but not including the Exercise Date. If the Common Stock is not so listed or quoted and bid and ask prices are not reported, the fair market value shall be the price per share as determined in good faith by the Company's Board of Directors.

B = the Exercise Price.




Here's my problem with it: (A-B/A) seems to call for a fraction to be subtracted from a price...I don't think that's possible. Shouldn't it be X = [Y(A-B)]/A ?