I'm not sure if I'm misunderstanding you, but by the way you are saying it, I don't understand. What's the difference between the company continuing to dilute as is, and the company continuing to dilute after an R/S? None, correct? So, what you are saying is incorrect.
What I am saying is that the ONLY difference is that the effects of dilution are more clearly displayed after an R/S because the stock has more room to drop and we can all see the drop. The effects of dilution before an R/S is the SAME, but you just can't clearly see it because the stock can't display lower than .0001 (even though it IS, in fact, worth lower and lower than .0001 as dilution occurs).
So, there is no difference between diluting before or after an R/S. None at all. Am I missing something?
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