?…The three “Funds” went from “We Bought & Included JCP into the Fund” and then now only yesterday giving a one day notice for whatever undisclosed reason “We Have Sold 100% of JCP that We Previously Bought/Included”. What’s the timeline involved for such a collective advance disclosure following execution of such a “Fund” Sell?
Am I crazy, yes I am. Yet for the sake of this question please bare with me, doesn’t it take at least at least a month for a “Fund” to collectively come to grip with an 180/degree conclusion that they are going to in fact rotate ownership to 100% departure of a stock that’s within one of their “Funds”? I don’t know the timelines it takes to make a “Fund” change decision so having difficulty applying it into real time myself but hey, “Funds” don’t "day trade".
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