I apologize, I don't have time for cute responses, and then yet not answering the implied question.
no one has any obligation to answer the question.
but would appreciate any explanation on the topic.
the part i don't get is one one person who sells a contract to somebody new, it doesn't decrease open interest, but if sells to someone who already owns contracts, it does decrease the open interest.
wouldn't there still be the same amount of existing contracts out there?
is that what the intent is of the calculations? or there something I am missing.
respectfully,