"Each time you increase the efficiency at one point (or segment of the pipeline : length of segment = V (speed) X time effect of the viscosity reduction (several hours)= approx 40 miles) you increase the flow of the whole pipeline. It's a cumulative effect, beginning from the first AOT installed"
Myrka says a great deal -- extremely helpful, thank you very much for taking the time to get all that down -- but the basic conclusion is that by lowering viscosity in the middle of a pipeline where there are no AOTs at either end, you do not increase volume throughput.
QUESTIONS TO MYRKA Myrka, there is a great deal of info in your post, but your basic contention seems to be: "Since the amount of liquid exiting a pipe has to equal the amount entering the pipe (conservation of mass), the velocity must be equal." - that is to say, you cannot have a substance going along in a pipe, and then have it suddenly increase velocity in the middle, then slow back down again. Right?
My questions are: 1) Why can't you have that? That does not violate the obvious law of 'the amount exiting has to equal the amount entering', because it would mean that the amount entering simply increases.
2) I was imagining it like this. Three pipes: a) ---------------- b) -----======----- c) ================ The width goes from a to c; C is the widest. B has a portion that is wider (greater diameter).
So, clearly you can push more stuff through C in one hour than you can through A, assuming the pressure and other variables are the same. Right? So why can't you push through more stuff in B than A, given the same variables?
3) If you added the AOT in the middle of a pipeline, what is the consequence? For example, you add it there, you are pumping the oil through, and then you suddenly turn on the AOT and start treating that oil going through the middle (let's say it's a 9 mile run, the AOT starts at the third mile and the effect wears off by the sixth mile). My understanding was that the immediate consequence of this is a pressure drop. The pumps do not need to work as hard to push the same amount of oil through. Then, I thought that a corollary of this is that if you then pushed back up the pressure, you could move more oil through in an hour. If this is not the case, can you please explain why? (If you believe you have done so, I really do not get it. I have read and reread your note, and am trying very hard to understand this.)
QUESTION TO MOOREA9 Can you please elaborate on the assertion you made above, and explain in detail why you believe it to be the case? More specifically, please explain what you believe is the exact mechanism by which this effect takes place?
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