lowtrade, thank-you for your help. So I need help understanding. So BRK-A is overvalued according to the Book Value Per Share. Though BRK-B is undervalued according to the Book Value Per Share. I know both are issued from BRK and BRK-B is non-voting. Though are these statements still true according to the Book Value Per Share? For example, say I was interested in buying BRK-B. Which Book Value Per Share is correct? Are the Book Value Per Share's different just because their non-voting?