Samblis ICPA why are you continuing to post that response when you and everyone with any public business accumen whatsoever knows its not true in anyway?
It is not true and you are making it up hoping no one on the board will see through it. You are convoluting two different types of dilution in order to confuse the board and obfuscate the truth.
With respect to your post, you know full well that personal shares, that you are refering too, have nothing to do with the type of dilution that is being referred to in the question. Your salary or getting money from shareholders through dilution to run day to day operations or whatever you choose to do with the money is unencumbered by the 144 statutes. Said monies are pulled straight from the A/S and have nothing to do with any 144 filing because they have never been restricted and do not qualify for the filing in question.
Hence the reason you have not filled one.
Yes, you would have to FILE A 144 TO SELL YOUR PERSONAL SHARES. Or anyone else affilitated with the company that has convertable debt shares gifted to them for services rendered. If these people qualify for the filing. For instance, if they sell slowly over time then no filing is necessary.
However, your salary and whatever else your dilution machine is doing with the cash are carte blanche for anything you choose and come straight from the A/S.
The question and your answer to it are mutually exclusive.
News 
Market Data 
Discover 
AI
