Ok...with over $3mil in current outstanding convertible debt...would you like to explain how the remaining 107,000,000 or so remaining shares of the existing A/S would satisfy that maturing all at once at the current pps? Something like 600,000,000 shares at a 50% VWAP conversion by my calcs.
I believe the co will pay off this debt with promised/secured financing equity based before we even get close to this point, but I don't think a company can legally promise these types of debt conversions without the ability to "pay" in shares.