Not quite.
Before an R/s:
- you have 1,000,000 shares @.0004 = $400
After a (1 for 1000) R/S:
- You now have 1000 shares @.40 = $400
If someone buys after the R/s @.40 they will have the same value as the shareholders before the R/S.
Now, much of the time after an R/S happens, if there is no real value in the company, the sp will quickly decrease in value from say .40.
So if there is an R/S as long as the price does not come down after the R/S, there is no difference.