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exwannabe

07/28/11 8:51 PM

#124115 RE: ghmm #124114

One of the science people on this board can probably give you a better answer. One simple answer is that its often hard to get as high bio-availability of the drug orally as can be achieved IV. I think often still when a drug comes available in both forms the IV is still far superior.



That all makes sense, and is how I would view it.

But I think BTH really has a more specific issue on his mind, ARIA's Rida. which was first developed as an IV formulation then replaced with an oral version.

This one has me confused as well. It seams more reasonable to go forward with the IV unless there is something we all are missing.

Is the convenience issue that big?