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rockinstocks

07/20/11 4:22 PM

#44925 RE: pantherj #44924

First, you don't divide the PPS for a reverse split you multiply it.

1:1000 reverse split means 1000 shares with PPS of .0003 will be converted to 1 share with PPS of .30


Second, what are you basing your claims of a reverse split off of?
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RustyBucksRanch

07/20/11 5:32 PM

#44927 RE: pantherj #44924

WRONG.... LOL. Even the basis mathematics of how to calculate a reverse split seems to provide yet another wrong answer.

And, The market value of the total number of shares (market capitalization) remains the same after the split. All that changes is the PPS and the outstanding share count... EQUALLY.

And my opinions, BTW, have always proved to be correct.

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Alyssa

07/20/11 6:36 PM

#44928 RE: pantherj #44924

And my opinions, BTW, have always proved to be correct.


Well no, they certainly have not, and here is just ONE example out of many:

Divide todays GDHI PPS by 1,000 in preparation for the likely 1:1000 reverse split and see if you wouldn't be further ahead by taking .00001 for your shares.


As has already been pointed out to you, your imaginary reverse split would yield a share price of $.30, not quadruple zero, and the number of shares outstanding would be about 4.8 million (not necessarily a bad thing either).

Whew.