Which reminds me, it does seem to me you completely ignored the gist of their comment/question, which is why would a company with a low price per share issue a 3:1 split? Isn't their objective for the price to rise above $5 so they can get listed on an exchange and sit at the table with the big money?
The only reason for manipulating the stock to avoid a "high" price per share is to have "plausible deniability" when they are asked why they aren't meeting the reporting standards of a 'legitimate' exchange.
I don't think dodging the issue helps the company or the stock.
It is certainly the simplest explanation: Occam's Razor.
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