Here is my theory:
DKAM signs a financing agreement with XYZ. XYZ loans DKAM $50,000 at a clip secured by $100,000 of stock at current value, maybe more as a short term close ended note. DKAM automatically defaults on the note, XYZ Sells the stock in the open market.
XYZ arranges for buyers to take their shares at a discount so it always drops the stock price.
All wait until PR to sell so that there is a mix of buyers from the street and from XYZ's stable of customers.
Just a theory, but nothing else here makes any sense...