In contrasting FV-100 with valacyclovir, why wouldn't a once-a-day dosage become the preferred treatment? Perhaps I'm just naive, but it seems this is a no-brainer.
Also, given the high widespread occurrence of "HZ" virus, and the possibility of incidental differences in efficacy (or even the prospect of "piggybacking") it seems that there is easy potential for this drug to be very profitable. No?