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zigmonia

01/17/05 5:39 PM

#132 RE: eztradin #131

ez ....i don't understand what you mean ...

in a f/s -- more share are created but no dilution has occurred

in a r/s less shares are created but no dilution has occurred

in a f/s i have X times as many shares as i had before but at a price divided by factor X

your explaination to the board is totally confusing ---I know this -- If I were naked short 1,000,000 shares "PRE" Oct 29th 2004 I would now 150,000,000 shares short (post dec 31st 2004

IMO - I think this may have something to do with the strategy being employed here

zigmonia

01/17/05 5:42 PM

#134 RE: eztradin #131

The actual shares pre-split exist after the F/S.

_--- No they don't

At some point then, the post-split shares start
hitting the market, 32M O/S in this case.

___Only if you own them....

The 32M O/S needs to churn thru buys and sells...that's
why I mentioned 64M shares.

_____Why churn thru ?

I don't even think we will know how thinly this trades until
we are in the teens.

______I think we know how thin this is already ...

The spread will start being .005 to .01 intervals min.

____we've already been there..


Hope this helps.