I have reread todays pr and this part I find kind of interesting:
To me this means, since today was the last day, they are implying that the sale could conclude today. It that happened, and there are over 300 mil shares shorted, doesnt that mean that the new buyer would have over $3 million of shorters money, to pay to those who are actually shareholders??
I think the buyer has been buying shares on the open market and I think that the buyer already owns most of the company. If there are only 700 million or so that they actually have to pay .01 for, thats $7 million. But since about 1/2 of that would be from shorts, the actual amount they would pay out is just over $3 mil.