Perhaps you or someone else here would know this: For the conditions required to establish libel for public figures, "actual malice" must be proven. My question is whether officers in public companies are legally considered to be public figures. Is it an established point of law or something determined on a case by case basis?
Question for you. If Sykes is located in Connecticut and tries to rely upon New York's Anti-SLAPP statute as a defense, which state's law prevails, assuming Connecticut doesn't have an Anti-SLAPP statute -- New York's or Connecticut's?