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ryanmnly

03/19/10 7:18 PM

#13639 RE: $UPERMAN #13631

It says both the board of directors and majority shareholders "have agreed to the offer price of $0.01 for any and all outstanding shares."

But if the buyer already owns, say 4 billion shares, he's essentially just paying himself the $0.01 per share right? So in reality, it's not as if it is costing him anything except the original price he paid for those shares.