I agree with this thought - the MM are struggling with the grey market and the buys are being reported short until they get the shares and close the trade ..
But it leaves me wondering:
1. Are the trades described above handled the way they are because because of a concern on the MM's part that thin trading in the issue may result in difficulty finding a buyer? Or is it an issue of the right price?
2. In cases where there is not a concern about finding a buyer does the MM make the buy from the original seller immediately, resulting in that sale being one of those represented by the difference between "short volume" and total volume" in the report?
3. Can we assume that a short trade, as we normally understand it, is part of the "short volume" on the report?
4. Are the implications of your "discovery" that the fact that "short volume" tends to be a larger percentage of "total volume" in some issues results to a large degree from liquidity and execution concerns on the part of the market makers rather than actual short sales as we know them?
5. If so, what would explain the same high ratios in large cap stocks where there would presumably be no reason for the market maker not to do the buy himself immediately?