An example: I know someone who recently bought $600.00 of FFGO @0.0003 and put a stop-loss @0.0002, and was surprised that the shares were "sold out from under him" the same day as the purchase. What was that all about??? Better start educating the uneducated!!!
moe_the_gyp01': Amazes me that after years of the average investor being able to direct their own trades they still don't understand the basic concept that you buy at the ask and sell at the bid. Otherwise why wouldn't one buy all day at the bid of .0002 and immediately sell at the ask of .0003 for an instant gain of 50%?
So you're saying that it is impossible that any of the transactions which took place on the .0002's were buys? I am curious to hear your reponse.
Mr. Moe, You can say what you will, however Vianna posted her conformation of a buy at the bid .0002 when the ask was .0003, so don't say it is not being done by MM's and brokers to cover any shorts that they may have.
The reason they don't continue to buy at the bid and sell at the ask, is because you can't sell at the ask, many have tried without results, but have had results buying at the bid.
If you have any doubt, that trading chart should be enough to show a seasoned cfo like you. That common sense shows that there is no way in the world the ask and bid would not fall like a rock, let alone have numerous sales at .0002, and still have .0003 in the mix, if indeed that buy sell ratio was as that buy sell chart indicates.
This has been going on for the past two weeks, at least chart showing 3 to 1 sell to buy ratio. Just look at the .0003 buys, and maybe you can explain how that can be, http://ih.advfn.com/p.php?pid=trades&symbol=FFGO without some buys (most on the bid) to hold the ask up?