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Tim Fowler

10/12/04 8:01 PM

#45654 RE: smooth2o #45648

Maybe I'm wrong, but since Intel has 90% of the revenue market, if you divide 21% by 10 you get 2.1%, so Intel must have increased it's revenues by 2X over AMD. So AMD must have lost share, no?

Since Intel has much more than twice as much revenue as AMD, if
both companies increase revenue and Intel increases its revenue twice as much as AMD than Intel is losing revenue share to AMD.

An example of the principle using simple numbers that aren't the actual numbers for either company.

If AMD's revenue was 10 and Intels was 90, and AMD added 200 while Intel added 400, Intel would go from 90% revenue share to about 70% of revenue share. I'm using huge increases to make the effect obvious. The real % increases where much smaller for both companies but that just makes for a smaller Intel revnue share loss not an Intel share gain.

Tim
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yourbankruptcy

10/12/04 8:17 PM

#45657 RE: smooth2o #45648

smooth, Intel increased revenue more than AMD in absolute numbers indeed. But if you get back to this post:

http://investorshub.com/boards/read_msg.asp?message_id=4271887

you will see that AMD increased the share from 8.8% to 10.2%. Very visible number.

I was wondering about units, not dollars. I can imagine that AMD actually lost some units marketshare, no surprise to me here.