What I have a hard time to understand is: "why does he keep using "undervalued (???)" shares in doing some transactions?"
Why doesn't he understand that spending the funds ($ 200,000) to get his financials audited and reported, could let him stop diluting his own (and our) ownership ... if the company is effectively as claimed?".
... Unless he is the one accumulating most new shares, thereby increasing is % of ownership ???
... Even worse ... unless the claimed available cash is not easyly accessible ???
We keep seeing increasing revenues but the last time we saw detailled numbers (Tahim's report) 99.5% of the showned revenues were coming from Bingladesh.
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